PG-ENTRANCE MCQ-test Feb08
01. The common disaccharide, sucrose, contains which of the
following monosaccharide residues?
A.
glucose and galactose
B.
glucose and mannose
C.
glucose and fructose
D.
glucose only
E.
mannose and galactose
02. Three functions of proteins in the tissues are:
A.
in water balance, as antibodies, and as enzymes.
B.
In the structure of heme, as vitamin and as enzymes.
C.
as enzymes, in acid/base balance, and in the structure of
cholesterol.
D.
as a source of energy, as antibodies, and as bile.
E.
in acid/base balance, as HCl, and as a source of energy.
03. Which one of
the following statements is false:
A.
The
enzymes of the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA) are located in the mitochondria
B.
TCA
cycle is of no metabolic significance for the oxidation of fatty acids or amino
acids
C.
TCA
cycle is an oxidative process
D.
Pyruvate
is converted to Acetyl-CoA before entering the cycle
E. The cycle functions irreversibly
04.
Dietary protein could provide precursors for the de novo synthesis in
humans of all of the following EXCEPT
A.
acetoacetate.
B.
ribose.
C.
uric acid.
D.
linoleic acid.
E.
orotic acid
05.
Which of the following enzymes is required for the conversion of dietary
triacylglycerol into chylomicron triacylglycerol?
A.
Acyl- CoA synthetase
B.
Acyl-CoA: cholesterol acyl transferase
C.
Hormone-sensitive triacylglycerol lipase
D.
Lipoprotein lipase
E.
Lysosomal acid lipase.
06. In phenylketonuria, following compounds accumulates in
the urine:
A.
valine
B.
leucine
C.
isoleucine
D.
phenylalanine
E.
tyrosine
07. The liver is able to carry out the reactions of the urea
cycle under normal circumstances, whereas other tissues can not. The ability of
the liver to synthesize urea is due to the presence of
A.
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase.
B.
ornithine transcarbamoylase.
C.
argininosuccinate synthetase
D.
argininosuccinate lyase.
E.
arginase.
08. The oxidation of methanol in human retina leads directly
to the formation of ____, and indirectly to____.
A.
CO2, pressure buildup.
B.
CO2 , blindness.
C.
sugars, color blindness.
D.
formaldehyde, stomach upset.
E.
formaldehyde, blindness.
09. The chemotherapeutic agent methotrexate (amethopterin)
is targeted to which of the following enzymes?
A.
dihydrofolate reductase
B.
hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
C.
ribonucleotide reductase
D.
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
E.
glutamine synthetase
10.
Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone bodies
would also promote the
A.
oxidation of fatty acids in erythrocytes.
B.
oxidation of glucose in adipose tissue.
C.
synthesis of amino acids in liver.
D.
synthesis of fatty acids in liver.
E.
synthesis of glucose in liver.
11. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome is most often
due to a deficiency in
A.
adenosine deaminase.
B.
xanthine oxidase.
C.
ribonucleotide reductase.
D.
thymidylate synthase
E.
hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
12. The protein that binds and directly reduces the terminal
electron acceptor in mitochondrial electron transport is
A.
cytochrome bc1.
B.
cytochrome oxidase.
C.
succinate dehydrogenase.
D.
coenzyme QH2
E.
NADH:Q reductase.
13. What is the first product of fatty acid catabolism?
A.
glycerol
B.
pyruvate
C.
acetyl CoA
D.
triglycerides
E.
lactate
14. Which of the following is a major function of magnesium?
A.
Transport of oxygen
B.
Prevention of anaemia
C.
Production of thyroid hormone
D.
Catalyst in energy metabolism
15. For normal development of taste bud, a zinc containing
polypeptide is necessary:
A.
gustin
B.
sucrase
C.
trehalase
D.
gastrin
E.
lactase
16. Gastric peptides formed by pepsin are instrumental in
initiating pancreatic phase of protein digestion by stimulating:
A.
cholecystokinin
B.
carboxy peptidase A
C.
trypsin inhibitor
D.
trypsinogen
E.
none of above
17. A patient with a PCO2 of 30 and a base deficit of +2
most likely has:
A. respiratory
acidosis
B. respiratory
alkalosis
C. metabolic
acidosis
D. metabolic
alkalosis
18. Hyperphosphatemia may occur in all of the following
conditions EXCEPT:
A.
bone metastases
B.
hypervitaminosis D
C.
milk-alkali syndrome
D.
acromegaly
E.
vitamin D deficiency
19. The drug allopurinol (a purine analog) is beneficial for
patients with gout because the drug directly inhibits the enzyme :
A.
hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT).
B.
phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) synthetase.
C.
purine nucleoside phosphorylase.
D.
xanthine oxidase.
E.
inosinicase.
20. The dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor methotrexate is an
effective anticancer drug because :
A.
conversion of ribonucleoside diphosphates (NDPs) to
deoxyribonucleoside diphosphates (dNDPs) is inhibited.
B.
conversion of tetrahydrofolate to N5,N10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate
is blocked.
C.
conversion of N5,N10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate
to dihydrofolate is blocked.
D.
cell replication is blocked in the absence of thymidine
triphosphate.
E.
high levels of N10-formyl-tetrahydrofolate are
toxic to tumor cells.
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(Students are request to email answers along with their name, place, and name of
institution. A merit list along with the
answers to this test will be posted on March 1, 2008)
Answer key to PG-ENTRANCE MCQ-test: Jan, 2008